[Bell Historians] Fwd: [c-r] historical question

John Harrison john@jaharrison.me.uk [bellhistorians] bellhistorians at yahoogroups.com
Sat May 6 12:38:02 BST 2017


Any thoughts on this?  

Obviously with no stays ringing down would have to refer to the end of a
piece of ringing (as with Devon style) rather than a separate piece of
ringing at the end of a session (as now widespread elsewhere).  

When did the term 'ring down' appear?  It would seem to imply that lowering
was a recognisably distinct phase in an extended period of ringing (at
whatever height was possible).

------ Forwarded message  ------
From: Helen Pettet via Change-ringers <change-ringers at bellringers.org>
Date: 06 May 2017 0840
Subject: [c-r] historical question
Mailing-List: ChangeRingers

I realise this is probably the wrong list but it's the only one I'm on.
When (what century or period) would bells be considered to 'ring down'? I
was reading a tale set in 1447 and the author describes the bells as 'only
beginning to ring down' and I wondered if this was perhaps an anachronism.
I tried to look up data on this and only found that half and three quarter
wheels were used in the 15th century so I suppose they could raise the
bells a certain way but I would not have thought that 'ringing down' would
be over a set period of time. 
------ End forwarded message ------

-- 
John Harrison
Website http://jaharrison.me.uk


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Posted by: John Harrison <john at jaharrison.me.uk>
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